Shot replayed????

[Farzin]

I once hit a shot that went 15 yards in front of me, so I dropped another, just fooling around with the full intention of playing the first shot. I stuck the second shot about a foot for birdie. I ended up making a bogey on that hole with my initial ball, but if I had called that first shot unplayable, I could've made a par with the stroke penalty.

but if I had called that first shot unplayable, I could've made a par with the stroke penalty.

correct

[Kilroy]

Farzin, I don't think that is correct. Have a look at the post I made just before yours.

[mmills820105]

er... no mmills820105

1 - shot to 15 feet
2 - penalty
3 - rehit to about a foot
4 - tap in bogey

Would have to hole it for par

Right, I forgot about the original 15 yard shot. That still counts.

[Farzin]

but if I had called that first shot unplayable, I could've made a par with the stroke penalty.

You would have had a par based on your if statement. It sounds like you are saying that instead of hitting the 15 yard shot, If You would have declared unplayable and take a penalty stroke then hit your third shot to a feet and putt it in for a par. If I undrstood it right then you would have had a par, Othherwise Dan is right and I don't get the question.

[mmills820105]

Let me see if I got this straight. I hit my drive (1), I hit my next shot 15 yards (2), declare it unplayable (3), next shot to a foot (4), tap-in (5). Bogey.

I think what happened is we didn't realize that the 15 yard shot was actually my second shot, after I teed off.

[Colby]

Even if it was your first shot, hitting the "fool around" ball to kick-in birdie range ( a 2 on a par 3) would still equal a bogey because hitting your third shot from the original location (first shot 15 yards+penalty for unplayable) would leave you with a tap in four which on a par 3 is a bogey.