Trial Drops

[BC MIST]

These rules scenarios come from a rules forum, are unique and are presented solely for the enjoyment or frustration of rules of golf aficionados.

mpare hits his ball into a pile of junk. He takes two balls from his pocket and proceeds to drop both of them near where his ball lay. His FC says, "What the heck are you doing?" and m replies, "Taking some trial drops to see if it would be advantageous to declare the ball unplayable or play the ball as it lies. His FC faints.

How would you rule?

[mike k]

Obviously a trick question - mpare never hits anywhere but the best lies on the fairway.

[justsomeguy]

I would think that mpare is disqualified under Rule 14-3, because the ball he is using for the trial drops is considered "equipment":

Except as provided in the Rules, during a stipulated round the player must not use any artificial device or unusual equipment, or use any equipment in an unusual manner:

a. That might assist him in making a stroke or in his play;

Of course, the reason his FC faints is because he has realized that he finally won some money from mpare!

[mpare]

You guys know me too well.

Without having looked at the rules, my instincts tell me that a player can't test the ground in that fashion to see where the ball is likely to end up. However, it's something I'd want to check.

[AAA]

If he has dropped a ball he must take relief. He cannot play his original ball.

[LobWedge]

If he has dropped a ball he must take relief. He cannot play his original ball.

I thought so too, but if you're referring to Rule 15-2, then Rule 20-6 gives him an out.

My vote would be with Rule 14-3.

[BC MIST]

I thought so too, but if you're referring to Rule 15-2, then Rule 20-6 gives him an out.

My vote would be with Rule 14-3.

If he was to drop the ball within the two club lengths of where the original ball lay, and was not nearer the hole, then his first "trial" ball would be in play. I don't think 20-6 would give him an out. While he would be dropping a different ball, substituting another ball is permitted when a ball has been declared unplayable (28-a) and the other 7 reasons for redropping would not apply.

14-3 (a)(b)would seem to cover this except that when dropped, the ball is IN PLAY and by definition, a ball is NOT equipment when in play.

While the rules don't contemplate this situation I would look at 1-4 where it says that a decision should be made in accordance with equity. Because the trial drops show inequity, I would look at 33-7 and disqualify the player.

Another example given of a similar kind of "manipulation" of the rules, (PRE 2008) is when a player finds two balls semi-buried in a bunker where he knows that ONE of them is not his, and he plays a stroke knowing that there "IS" no penalty for playing a wrong ball in a bunker, and then playing his/the other ball. Obviously the 2008 rules change now covers this nonsense.

[AAA]

As the player did not inted to drop these particular balls to be a sustitute he cannot use them. But he cannot change his mind about taking relief under 28. So he must drop another and indicate he is doing so and then play that one.

[LobWedge]

As the player did not inted to drop these particular balls to be a sustitute he cannot use them. But he cannot change his mind about taking relief under 28. So he must drop another and indicate he is doing so and then play that one.

But he hasn't declared his original ball unplayable.

"Taking some trial drops to see if it would be advantageous to declare the ball unplayable or play the ball as it lies."

[AAA]

LobWedge

I now understand that the R&A and USGA have given informal advice that the original ball may not be played. (Presumably the player is deemed to be playing under Rule 28). However, it is not clear which clause he must play under, nor is it clear what the status of the dropped balls is.

I will post again if or when the RBs give further advice.

[LobWedge]

LobWedge

I now understand that the R&A and USGA have given informal advice that the original ball may not be played. (Presumably the player is deemed to be playing under Rule 28). However, it is not clear which clause he must play under, nor is it clear what the status of the dropped balls is.

I will post again if or when the RBs give further advice.

Sounds good! Thanks.