Club Championship

[1dash1]

364 days a year, a club plays under the regular rules of golf, unamended. No problems. No disputes.

One day a year, the club plays its championship. Same regular members participate - no sleepers or unknowns.

They impose the "one ball rule" for this tournament.

When asked why they have the rule, the answers vary from "tradition" to "because that's how other club championships are run". None of the responses hint at any need due to expertise.

(Note: The club happens to consist of women. None of whom can hit a drive further than 220 yards, most of whom hit their drives between 160 and 180. I.e., none of the players generate exceptional clubhead speed. Handicaps vary from 8 thru 30+.)

What do you all think about their once-a-year rule? Good idea or bad?

[buckylasek]

I don't know, i think it can be a good idea, it's the focus of a challenge.

[el tigre]

364 days a year, a club plays under the regular rules of golf, unamended. No problems. No disputes.

One day a year, the club plays its championship. Same regular members participate - no sleepers or unknowns.

They impose the "one ball rule" for this tournament.

When asked why they have the rule, the answers vary from "tradition" to "because that's how other club championships are run". None of the responses hint at any need due to expertise.

I had always thought that the primary reason for the "one ball rule" in competitions was in order to verify ball identifications in potential lost-ball situations. So if you have to announce that you're playing a Titleist, then there is no way that a Top Flite you found in the woods can be your ball. That is the only reason that makes any sense to me.

[Sakuraba]

Why would they impose such a rule?

Some fantastic performances would be eliminated by this rule. They could very easily deny the true champion.

[jvincent]

What do you all think about their once-a-year rule? Good idea or bad?

Quoting Oscar's grandmother: "Better to burn down the house than break a tradition."

[LobWedge]

364 days a year, a club plays under the regular rules of golf, unamended. No problems. No disputes.

One day a year, the club plays its championship. Same regular members participate - no sleepers or unknowns.

They impose the "one ball rule" for this tournament.

When asked why they have the rule, the answers vary from "tradition" to "because that's how other club championships are run". None of the responses hint at any need due to expertise.

(Note: The club happens to consist of women. None of whom can hit a drive further than 220 yards, most of whom hit their drives between 160 and 180. I.e., none of the players generate exceptional clubhead speed. Handicaps vary from 8 thru 30+.)

What do you all think about their once-a-year rule? Good idea or bad?

A local rule like this one is imposed to protect the rest of the field, and to simplify identification in case of a dispute over a lost ball or a new ball being put into play. A competitor should, as a matter of etiquette, announce to his group on the first tee, which brand and model of ball he/she is playing. Since the rules don't state that you are required to do this, either on the tee or when putting another ball into play, or that you can't in fact play different brands of conforming balls during the same round, it just makes things simpler for all involved. One less thing to worry about when you're on the course.

I like it. What are your thoughts on it 1dash1?

[Sakuraba]

Ok I guess I need more clarification on the "one ball rule" I took it to mean you get one ball for the tournament: dunk it in thw water and youre dq'd

We have this rule in our texas shootout each year.

If the one ball rule simply means you have to play the same brand and # of ball all tournament long I have no problems with it.

[AAA]

The R&A introduces the Condition of Competition relation to the 'one ball condition with the following

"The following two conditions are recommended only for competitions involving expert players:
a. List of Conforming Golf Balls
b. One Ball Condition "

I can't see how this fits in with the once a year idea. What has suddenly made all these players expert.
Nor can I see what it has to do with identification. If a tour player declare he is playing with a Pro VI it is likely that half the field is using the same ball/type. They all put their own ID on anyway as required in Rule 6-5.

[el tigre]

Nor can I see what it has to do with identification. If a tour player declare he is playing with a Pro VI it is likely that half the field is using the same ball/type. They all put their own ID on anyway as required in Rule 6-5.

Rule 6-5 does not require you to put your own ID on the ball. It only says that you should - not that you must.

[AAA]

Rule 6-5 does not require you to put your own ID on the ball. It only says that you should - not that you must.

Yes, I should have remembered the specific usage by the RBs.

I was using the word 'require' as meaning 'instruct or expect someone to do something'. One of the definitions in the Oxford English Dictionary.

[Gary Hill]

The main use of the one ball rule is to prevent players from playing a rock hard ball on the par 5's for distance and switching to a mushy soft balata on the par 3's for bite.

[AAA]

The main use of the one ball rule is to prevent players from playing a rock hard ball on the par 5's for distance and switching to a mushy soft balata on the par 3's for bite.

Competitions for experts then

[Gary Hill]

Yes. I would consider the A class club champions from competitve courses like Ottawa Hunt, Rideau View, Rivermead, Royal Ottawa, Camelot, etc. to be expert golfers.

[AAA]

I was joking at the expense of the bulk of players mentioned in the original post.

[BC MIST]

A local rule like this one is imposed to protect the rest of the field,

From what?

and to simplify identification in case of a dispute over a lost ball or a new ball being put into play.

Why would there be a dispute? I know that a golfer should put a mark on his ball, but how many do NOT, which would end up in some sort of dispute? Having played in OVGA, GAO, QGA and RCGA tournaments, and a multitude of other invitationals and club events, EVERYBODY indicates what ball they’re playing and what their individual mark is. It is just a given.

At the amateur level I see NO need to impose a one ball rule but would welcome any reasonable reasons.

The main use of the one ball rule is to prevent players from playing a rock hard ball on the par 5's for distance and switching to a mushy soft balata on the par 3's for bite.

A little hyperbole here? If I sliced a ball off your noggan would you be able to tell if you were hit by a rock hard distance ball or a soft mushy spin ball?

With a change in ball structure there is always some sort of trade-off. Distance balls, most would say, don’t spin quite as much and spin balls don’t go quite as far. So if you tee up a distance ball on a par 5 would you not want to have some spin on the third, a short shot? As the pars 3’s average out to have the longest approach shots, then would using a distance ball not be advantageous? My experience with both spin and distance balls is that off the driver there is NO difference in distance, (ProV1 X versus Topflite 3000 Extra Long) and off the irons the 3000 may be a club longer. It would probably be disadvantageous to be changing balls from one type to another during the round, so why would anyone recommend the imposition of a one ball rule?

Yes. I would consider the A class club champions from competitve courses like Ottawa Hunt, Rideau View, Rivermead, Royal Ottawa, Camelot, etc. to be expert golfers.

Presumably your tongue is firmly planted in your cheek when you make this statement as the above wreaks of snobbery, because what you would also be inferring is that A Class club champions from courses other the 5 listed above, would NOT be considered “EXPERT” golfers, AND that other clubs are not “competitive.” Having been around A class tournaments for literally decades, let me assure you that there are more “experts” at several other non-private clubs as there are at the private ones you mentioned. Lowly, hick valley clubs like Arnprior and Renfrew are highly competitive, AND have a disproportionate number of very low handicapped golfers. Imagine!! The 2005 A class, OVGA Tournament of Champions winner, Phil Patterson, is from the Prescott Golf Club, and I assure you that he is one of the best players this area has ever seen. How about Chris Bernard, Ottawa Citizen champion? He is better than Phil but is not from the “Big 5, ” so I guess that, with a plus handicap, he is not an expert golfer either.

[Golfbum]

Why would they impose such a rule?

Some fantastic performances would be eliminated by this rule. They could very easily deny the true champion.

How would any fantastic performances be eliminated by this rule? All you have to do it is carry all the same make of ball for one round. That is not to hard to manage. If you can shoot 70 with a Titleist then how is teeing up a Topflite going to help you?
Personally I don't think it is a big deal. Buy a dozen new balls for the round and go play, you won't run out of balls.
Plus the rule brings a litte professionalism into the tournament, afterall the Pros have to play the same ball for an entire round, why can't we?

[1dash1]

The reason I posted this was to learn a little more about other's view on such things.

- To those who favor the rule based on tradition, I bow my head and withhold further argument. (If doing things for the sake of doing them is the purpose, what can I say to counter such reasoning?)

- For those who pose practical justifications for the one ball rule, I'd suggest that if such were the case, then the club should adopt the one ball rule year-round.

* * * * *

My personal opinion is that Committees should consider the need for local rules and Conditions of Competition. If one is needed, enact it. If it is not needed, dispense with it. When in doubt, leave it out. The fewer the rules, the better.

The game is complete and whole upon itself. The less the Committee tinkers with it, the better.

In this instance, the club does perfectly well without the one ball rule throughout the year. Clearly, such rule is unnecessary from the standpoint of conducting the competition.

That leaves the intangilble benefits of what may be otherwise gained ("be like Mikey" - mimicking other club championships, prestige, tradition, and what not). These should be weighed against the downside of penalizing a player for something that has nothing to do with the basic game (as governed by the 34 regular rules of golf).

It's like the Prom Committee's decision to make the dance a tuxedo affair - it's a value judgment of making the affair formal that needs to be weighed against the downside of excluding those who may be unable to afford the cost.

The decision is not "right" or "wrong".

Hopefully, the Committee's decision is well thought out.

[Sakuraba]

How would any fantastic performances be eliminated by this rule? All you have to do it is carry all the same make of ball for one round. That is not to hard to manage. If you can shoot 70 with a Titleist then how is teeing up a Topflite going to help you?
Personally I don't think it is a big deal. Buy a dozen new balls for the round and go play, you won't run out of balls.
Plus the rule brings a litte professionalism into the tournament, afterall the Pros have to play the same ball for an entire round, why can't we?

As I posted later, I misunderstood the meaning of a "one ball rule" which has yet to be clarified (but I gather it means each tournament participant must play the same type of ball throughout the tournament)

I thought it meant your get one ball for the tournament: lose it, and you are eliminated.

Imposition of that type of "one ball rule" could drastically change the outcome of a tournament.

[Kilroy]

I gather it means each tournament participant must play the same type of ball throughout the tournament

Same make and model for each stipulated round. You could play a different make and model for round two than round one. Bring as many as you want.

[Samick]

I dont see a problem with a one ball rule.....I only play one brand/make of golf ball anyway. Srixon Z-UR-S is the only ones in my bag next season.

[BC MIST]

I dont see a problem with a one ball rule.

I don't think that anyone would have any difficulty playing one kind of ball, but, why do the blue coats or anyone else feel that it is necessary that we play only one?

The game is probably easier when you get to know exactly what your ball of choice can do or not do and adding a second, contrasting ball to the mix is of NO advantage.

You can use a range finder to pinpoint a yardage, but you can't play a ProV1 on #2 if you play a ProV1 x on #1.

[Samick]

If I may ask.........why would you want to play one kind of ball on one hole...and a different ball on another hole in the same nine?

I play a specific ball all the time no matter what hole, or what weather. That way I have the feel for one ball.

Dont the Pros have to play with one ball (same brand/model) in a round as well?

[Kilroy]

If I may ask.........why would you want to play one kind of ball on one hole...and a different ball on another hole in the same nine?

Dont the Pros have to play with one ball (same brand/model) in a round as well?

Soft ball on a par 3 to stick it, hard ball on the par 5 to get maximunm distance.

Yes the PGA tour has the one ball rule as a local rule.

[AAA]

Yes the PGA tour has the one ball rule as a local rule.

Not quite. It is a Condition of Competition.

[BC MIST]

Soft ball on a par 3 to stick it, hard ball on the par 5 to get maximunm distance.

Since the approach shots on the par 5's average much shorter than the 3's and 4's, therefore, much more birdieable, would you not want a spin ball to "stick it," on these short approach, holes.

IMO, the amount of extra distance one gets from a distance ball, is grossly exaggerated and with less spin the distance advantage is negated because of the lack of control around the greens, unless the greens are very soft. The real advantage of a distance ball comes when you play it in the wind. As it spins less, it will also have less sidespin, so if your tendency is to curve the ball too much, you just might find the fairway a little more often.

I suppose that if you hit very few greens in regulation, but are usually close to larger greens after the regulation shot, then the "extra" distance may help, as large greens do not require you to need as much control when chipping or pitching. Ultimately though, the loss of control to and around the greens will hurt you more than any distance gained off the tee.

[Gary Hill]

IMO, the amount of extra distance one gets from a distance ball, is grossly exaggerated and with less spin the distance advantage is negated because of the lack of control around the greens, unless the greens are very soft. The real advantage of a distance ball comes when you play it in the wind. As it spins less, it will also have less sidespin, so if your tendency is to curve the ball too much, you just might find the fairway a little more often.

So I am guessing you are totally in favour of the one ball rule.

[LobWedge]

From what?

From cheaters.

Why would there be a dispute? I know that a golfer should put a mark on his ball, but how many do NOT, which would end up in some sort of dispute? Having played in OVGA, GAO, QGA and RCGA tournaments, and a multitude of other invitationals and club events, EVERYBODY indicates what ball they?re playing and what their individual mark is. It is just a given.

You just answered your own question. The unfortunate attitude nowadays is that, "if it's not written down in black and white, then it must be okay.". You say that EVERYBODY indicates what ball they're playing. No they don't. If they did, we wouldn't be having this discussion. A FC may announce on the first tee which ball he is playing, but what if he switches brands through the course of the round and neglects to inform you. Suddenly, every "lost" ball in the woods is potentially his. You and I may endeavor to play by ALL of the written, and unwritten rules of golf, but sadly, especially when there are tangible rewards on offer, some people need to be lead to the rulebook by the scruff of the neck.

[Kilroy]

Since the approach shots on the par 5's average much shorter than the 3's and 4's, therefore, much more birdieable, would you not want a spin ball to "stick it," on these short approach, holes.

I am well aware of this. I have played the Strata Tour Utimate for several years. I was just answering your question as to why.

[BC MIST]

So I am guessing you are totally in favour of the one ball rule.

Nope. I just don't see a need nor any significant advantage in doing so, therefore, if a golfer wants to switch balls betweens holes, let him. It is OK to have "100" balls on the conforming list, but, you are not allowed to use 99% of them??? Ridiculous. If the golfer wants more spin from a ball for an approach shot one one hole and more distance from a distance ball on another, then what is wrong with his being able to switch balls between holes if he wants to? I have a choice as to what club I hit from the tee, but no choice as to what ball I hit?

If I accidently break a DRIVER in the normal course of play, I am allowed to replace it with a lob wedge, but I can't change from a ProV1 to a ProV1x between holes??? But I can use a range finder to find out that I am 137.3 yards from the hole.

If the rule(s) is set up to prevent cheating, as was mentioned above, then why not change 6-5 from, "Each player should put an identifying mark on his ball, to MUST, which eliminate the necessity to impose a one ball rule for the reason: 'every "lost" ball in the woods is potentially his..'

Because I don't HAVE to inform my FC of a ball change,(which is a rule change I would make) then someone inclined to say that a "lost" ball is his, is going to do it anyway. If a golfer hits a ball, WITHOUT an identifying mark, into the woods and finds one in similar location AND condition, the ball is his original, even if it slipped to the ground through the hole in his pocket. How will the one ball rule prevent this kind of cheating?

Personally, it is very advantageous for me to use one ball because I know exactly how far it is going to go off a particular club and how much spin it is going to have, and how high or low I can hit it, however, it is not a rule that I would impose. As Sphere Hunter uses several different kinds of balls, I want him to become .

[Sphere Hunter]

As Sphere Hunter uses several different kinds of balls, I want him to become .

I was born confused! I think????

Besides, I have a chart that I carry in my golf bag that shows distances with every club for all 10 different brands that I play. Even my favourite, the Spalding Molitor.

BC, I sure agree with your comments about marking your ball. It means nothing. Even if you have elaborite markings on your ball, it doesn't stop you from having several more identically marked in your bag, ready for action. It still comes down to player integrity.

What if I use a Pinnacle ball from 1995 and later change to a Pinnacle ball with different characteristics made in 2004? What if I only have 3 of one type and run out during the round? I still have 80 others in the bag, all with similar characteristics but I have to walk in because of the one ball rule? It's a silly rule. BTW - The reason why I play different balls is because I really, really refuse to buy golf balls and prefer to play golf balls that I find. Does this preclude me from playing in a Club Championship with the one ball rule? What about the student who can't afford to buy 2 sleeves of ProV1x's? Silly rule. Maybe even a snobbish rule. Done talking.
SH